Why do we flip the inequality sign when dividing by a negative coefficient

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asked Mar 17, 2019 198k views

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Naveen Chhaniwal · Answer 1 · 2019-03-22T13:52:09+0000

By multiplying or dividing an inequality by −1, you're getting the same result by morning each term to the other side. Therefore, it reveres the inequality, and the sign.

Why do we flip the inequality sign when dividing by a negative coefficient

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