asked 66.2k views
1 vote
If f(x) = (x+1)^-1 and g(x) = x - 2, what is the domain of f(x) ÷ g(x)?

A.
all values of x

B.
(∞, -1), (-1, 2), and (2,∞)

C.
(∞, 2) and (2,∞)

D.
(∞, -1] and [2,∞)

asked
User Rabster
by
8.2k points

2 Answers

2 votes

Answer:

the answer is b

Explanation:

answered
User Ravi Teja Gadi
by
7.7k points
6 votes


a^(-1)=(1)/(a)\\\\\text{therefore:}\\\\f(x)=(x+1)^(-1)=(1)/(x+1)



g(x)=x-2




f(x)/ g(x)=(1)/(x+1)/(x-2)=(1)/(x+1)\cdot(1)/(x-2)=(1)/((x+1)(x-2))\\\\\text{The domain:}\\\\(x+1)(x-2)\\eq0\iff x+1\\eq0\ \wedge\ x-2\\eq0\\\\x\\eq-1\ \wedge\ x\\eq2



\text{Therefore your answer is B.}\\(-\infty;-1)\ \cup\ (-1;\ 2)\ \cup\ (2;\ \infty)

answered
User Craig Kelly
by
8.5k points

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