For what reason were political developments in south asia fundamentally different from those of southwest asia?

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asked Feb 8, 2019 110k views

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Ekans · Answer 1 · 2019-02-11T23:40:51+0000

The correct answer to this question is the letter D.

It says that South Asia had a small number of regional states and consequently had fewer oppositions that prompted ruling classes to unify their dominions.

For what reason were political developments in south asia fundamentally different from those of southwest asia?

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