asked 121k views
3 votes
If a=b(1/n is equivalent to an=b then 43 is equivalent to

2 Answers

4 votes

Answer:

64^(1/3)


Explanation:


answered
User Inor
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8.0k points
2 votes
I don't know I'm just going to 8th grade but I know you need to put variables together and multiply so you get your answer
answered
User Mph
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7.8k points

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