asked 214k views
3 votes
What is the counterexample for the conjecture?

Conjecture: Any number that is divisible by 2 is also divisible by 4.

A. 32

B. 12

C. 40

D. 18

asked
User Fruny
by
7.1k points

2 Answers

7 votes
Your answer would be: D.18
answered
User Rtviii
by
7.9k points
1 vote
Short Answer D

Remark
The answer you want must be factored down to prime factors, two of which are two 2s.

18 = 2 * 3 * 3 There is only one two in this so it is not going to be divisible by 4.


40 = 4 * 10 which = 10 when divided by 4

12 = 3 * 4 which = 3 when divided by 4

32 = 8 * 4 which = 8 when divided by 4 All these last 3 work. Only 18 does not.
answered
User Johan Gorter
by
7.7k points
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