asked 164k views
3 votes
A woman is deaf because of being homozygous recessive at an autosomal locus. She marries a deaf man who is also homozygous recessive at an autosomal locus. They have two children who have normal hearing. Assuming that this couple is the biological parents of these children, how is this situation most reasonably explained?

asked
User Guneli
by
8.1k points

1 Answer

1 vote

The correct answer is because of the mutant allele shows reduced penetrance and the normal son carries the mutant allele.

answered
User Jthill
by
8.1k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.