asked 186k views
2 votes
The time between surface finish problems in a galvanizing process is exponentially distributed with a mean of 42 hours. A single plant operates three galvanizing lines that are assumed to operate independently. Round your answers to four decimal places (e.g. 98.7654). (a) What is the probability that none of the lines experiences a surface finish problem in 42 hours of operation

asked
User W W
by
7.5k points

1 Answer

6 votes

Answer:

0.0498

Explanation:

given,

The time between surface finish problems in a galvanizing process is exponentially distributed with a mean of 42 hours.


\lambda = (1)/(42)

a) probability that none of the lines experiences a surface finish problem in 42 hours of operation

=
(1)/(42)(1)/(42)(1)/(42) \int_(42)^(\infty) \int_(42)^(\infty) \int_(42)^(\infty) (e^{(-x)/(42)})\ (e^{(-y)/(42)})\ (e^{(-z)/(42)})dx\ dy\ dz

=
((1)/(42))^3\int_(42)^(\infty) \int_(42)^(\infty) \int_(42)^(\infty) (e^{(-x)/(42)})\ (e^{(-y)/(42)})\ [\frac{e^{(-z)/(42)}}{(-1)/(42)}]_(42)^(\infty)dx\ dy\ dz

=
((1)/(42))^2\int_(42)^(\infty) \int_(42)^(\infty) (e^{(-x)/(42)})\ (e^{(-y)/(42)})\ e^(-1)dx\ dy

=
((1)/(42))^2\ e^(-1)[\frac{e^{(-y)/(42)}}{(-1)/(42)}]_(42)^(\infty)

=
((1)/(42)) \ e^(-1)\ e^(-1)[\frac{e^{(-x)/(42)}}{(-1)/(42)}]_(42)^(\infty)

=
e^(-1)\ e^(-1)\ e^(-1)

=
e^(-3)

= 0.0498

answered
User Bram De Jong
by
8.2k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.