asked 41.2k views
3 votes
Other things equal, the demand for a good tends to be more inelastic, thea.

a.more narrowly defined is the market for the good.
b.fewer the available substitutes.
c.more the good is considered a luxury good.
d.longer the time period considered.

asked
User Jinish
by
8.4k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

Option (b) is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

The demand for a particular good is more inelastic if an increase in the price of a good doesn't or little effect on the demand for that good.

If there are fewer substitutes available for a particular good then an increase in the price of a particular good doesn't affect the demand for that good much because of the less alternatives available for the consumers.

Hence, they have to purchase this good even at a higher prices, so, the demand for that good doesn't or little change.

That's why the demand for those goods tends to be more inelastic.

answered
User Clain Dsilva
by
7.4k points
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