asked 67.7k views
0 votes
Select the best answer. A local news agency conducted a survey about unemployment by randomly dialing phone numbers until they had gathered responses from 1000 adults in their state. In the survey, 19% of those who responded said they were not currently employed. In reality, only 6% of the adults in the state were not currently employed at the time of the survey. Which of the following best explains the difference in the two percentages? (a) The difference is due to sampling variability. We shouldn't expect the results of a random sample to match the truth about the population every time. (b) The difference is due to response bias. Adults who are employed are likely to lie and say that they are unemployed. (c) The difference is due to undercoverage bias. The survey included only adults and did not include teenagers who are eligible to work. (d) The difference is due to nonresponse bias. Adults who are employed are less likely to be available for the sample than adults who are unemployed. (e) The difference is due to voluntary response. Adults are able to volunteer as a member of the sample.

asked
User Hexid
by
8.0k points

1 Answer

4 votes

Answer:

(d) The difference is due to nonresponse bias. Adults who are employed are less likely to be available for the sample than adults who are unemployed.

Explanation:

Randomly dialing phone numbers until they had gathered responses from 1000 adults in their state will make a sample of 1000 adults from the group of "adults aviable at the moment of the call".

This result doesn't take in consideration the amount of non answered calls that will probably be product of the unavailability of people that were working.

answered
User Madcow
by
7.3k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.