Question

Assume that the electric field E is equal to zero at a given point. Does it mean that the electric potential V must also be equal to zero at this point? If not, then provide an example to prove your answer. If you think that the answer is "yes", please justify it.

Answer 1

• No, this doesn't mean the electric potential equals zero.

Step-by-step explanation:

In electrostatics, the electric field
`\vec{E}` is related to the gradient of the electric potential V with :

`\vec{E} (\vec{r}) = - \vec{\\abla} V (\vec{r})`

This means that for constant electric potential the electric field must be zero:

`V(\vec{r}) = k`

`\vec{E} (\vec{r}) = - \vec{\\abla} V (\vec{r}) = - \vec{\\abla} k`

`\vec{E} (\vec{r}) = -  ((\partial)/(\partial x) , (\partial)/(\partial y ) , (\partial)/(\partial z)) k`

`\vec{E} (\vec{r}) = -  ((\partial k)/(\partial x) , (\partial k)/(\partial y ) , (\partial k)/(\partial z))`

`\vec{E} (\vec{r}) = -  (0,0,0)`

This is not the only case in which we would find an zero electric field, as, any scalar field with gradient zero will give an zero electric field. For example:

`V(\vec{r})= (x+2)^2 (y+4)^3 (z+5)^4`

give an electric field of zero at point (0,0,0)