asked 69.8k views
4 votes
Are 5(8y - 8) and 40y - 40 equal?

2 Answers

6 votes

Answer: no they are not

Step-by-step explanation: since the expression is in the parentheses you have to distribute the 8 amount 5y and 8 basically multiply 8 by he two numbers inside the parentheses 8(5y-8)

40y-64 is not equal to 40y -40

answered
User Shubham Badal
by
9.1k points
2 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

5 * 8y = 40y

8 * 5 = 40

40y - 40 IS equal to 40y - 40

answered
User Lzm
by
8.6k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.