asked 174k views
3 votes
Please help me (50 points)

Please help me (50 points)-example-1
asked
User Sindrenm
by
7.9k points

2 Answers

5 votes

Answer:

A. 40°

Explanation:

Hello, there! The angle is across from (vertical to) the angle given. Therefore, the 2 angles are the same.

I hope I helped!

Let me know if you need anything else!

~ Zoe

answered
User Max Hoffmann
by
7.8k points
4 votes

Answer:

x = 40°, or A)

Explanation:

The Vertical Angle Theorem states that if the angles are vertically (directly) opposite of each other, the measurements will be the same.

Therefore, if the opposite angle of x is 40, then x also = 40.

~

answered
User Shamil
by
8.6k points

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