asked 1.4k views
2 votes
How do you solve 2cos²(x)-cos(x)=0

asked
User Pacane
by
8.6k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

Start by factoring the left side of 2cos²(x)-cos(x)=0:

cos x [ 2cos x - 1 ] = 0.

Then cos x = 0 and 2cos x - 1 = 0.

Restricting ourselves to positive angles between 0 and 2π, we get from cos x = 0 the angles x = π/2 and x = 3π/2.

Rewriting 2cos x - 1 = 0, we get

2cos x = 1, or cos x = 1/2. One solution is x = π/3, in the first quadrant; the other is x = 5π/3, in the fourth quadrant.

answered
User Mcgraphix
by
8.6k points

Related questions

asked Nov 25, 2024 56.6k views
Luka Ramishvili asked Nov 25, 2024
by Luka Ramishvili
7.9k points
1 answer
1 vote
56.6k views
asked Aug 15, 2024 218k views
Thaisa asked Aug 15, 2024
by Thaisa
7.7k points
2 answers
1 vote
218k views
asked Dec 13, 2024 7.6k views
Jaanus asked Dec 13, 2024
by Jaanus
7.0k points
1 answer
4 votes
7.6k views
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.