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Given f(x)=sin x and g(x)=cos x, find f(g(pi/2))=0. For this, I would just have to prove it's true or false right?

Given f(x)=sin x and g(x)=cos x, find f(g(pi/2))=0. For this, I would just have to prove it's true or false right?
asked 46.0k views
4 votes
Given f(x)=sin x and g(x)=cos x, find f(g(pi/2))=0.

For this, I would just have to prove it's true or false right?

asked
User Eran Kampf
by
8.0k points

1 Answer

4 votes

Answer:

0

Explanation:

sin(cos(pi/2))

answered
User Karolin
by
7.9k points
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